On Jan 22, 2008 12:44 PM, Steven Johnson <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote: > > On 1/22/08 12:14 PM, "Lars T Hansen" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
> Question: should an implementation be *required* to execute a tail call as a > Proper Tail Call when possible, even if said syntax is not present? (or > merely *permitted* to do so?) If there is no guarantee then the implicit proper tail calls feature is useless to someone writing code for a variety of implementations (eg web browsers.) If there are implicit proper tail calls then I need to know when I can count on them and I will only use them in those situations listed in the ES4 spec. Peter _______________________________________________ Es4-discuss mailing list [email protected] https://mail.mozilla.org/listinfo/es4-discuss
