The MWI is just the quantum formalism minus wave function collapse and is therefore perfectly compatible with this experiment, since the experiment is itself compatible with the quantum formalism.
Would this experimental result actually be predicted by the quantum formalism, though? It sounds like they had a setup similar to the double-slit experiment and found a small amount of interference even when they measured which hole the particle traveled through, but I thought the quantum formalism predicts that interference would be completely destroyed by such a measurement.
Either way, the claim that this supports the transactional interpretation but not the MWI interpretation can't be right, since both are supposed to be equally compatible with the quantum formalism.
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