On Fri, Jun 24, 2005 at 03:25:29PM +0200, Bruno Marchal wrote:
> 
> Perhaps. It depends of your definition of "OM", and of your 
> "everything" theory.
> 
> Let me tell you the "Lobian's answer":  if I have a successor OM then I 
> have a successor OM which has no successor OM.
> 
> OK, I am cheating here, but not so much. As I just said to Stathis I 
> must find a way to convince people about the urgency of using the modal 
> logical tools.
> 

This reminds me of something I wanted to ask you Bruno. In your work
you axiomatise knowledge and end up with various logical systems that
describe variously 1st person knowledge, 1st person communicable
knowledge, 3rd person knowledge etc. In some of these, the Deontic
axiom comes up, which if translated into Kripke semantics reads "all
worlds have a successor word" (or "no worlds are terminal"). Yet it
appears that you would like to identify what I call psychological time
as a succession of worlds that follow according to these Kripke
semantics. Particularly in comments like the above. Since we have
started with an interpretation of knowledge, formalised it to a
logical system - how do we make sense of this backwards
interpretation, ie treating the Kripke semantics as describing the 1st
person appearance of time? You make no reference (or perhaps only
hints) in your Lille thesis - I never got around to downloading your
Brussels thesis - is there something in that? or is it a more recent
development.

Cheers

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