On Mon, Aug 29, 2005 at 10:18:22AM -0400, Hal Ruhl wrote:
> I have argued that the Nothing is incomplete [its "mate" - I call it the 
> All - may be inconsistent due to its completeness] and the collection - 
> Nothing + All + the definition - I call the Everything].   If the Nothing 
> is incomplete and the All is not is this a violation of mathematical 
> duality?
> Hal Ruhl

Perhaps "completeness" <-> "consistency" under the duality
operation. So a demonstration of nothing being incomplete is
equivalent to a demonstration that the all is inconsistent.


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A/Prof Russell Standish                  Phone 8308 3119 (mobile)
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