that that question itself is absurd, if there was 'nothing' and there
was a 'why' to that 'nothing'; if it had a cause, then there wouldn't
be nothing, there would be the cause: something.

so at no point can any explanation refer to a state where the universe
had not yet decided to go either 'nothing' or 'something', because
that implies structure and inevitability (something), so naturally the
answer to 'why' must precede this, and then again... how could you
refer to an event which precedes itself?

Dominic

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