On Thursday, May 8, 2025 at 5:01:00 PM UTC-6 Brent Meeker wrote:



On 5/7/2025 9:03 PM, Alan Grayson wrote:



On Wednesday, May 7, 2025 at 6:58:20 PM UTC-6 Brent Meeker wrote:



On 5/7/2025 5:46 PM, Alan Grayson wrote:



On Tuesday, May 6, 2025 at 9:53:17 PM UTC-6 Brent Meeker wrote:



On 5/6/2025 7:47 PM, Alan Grayson wrote:

Maybe someone can explain this; if, say, the momentum operator always 
returns an eigenvalue of the momentum of the system being measured, then 
when used in the UP, how can there be an uncertainty in momentum to give a 
statistical variance? TY, AG


You misunderstand what the HUP refers to.   There is often confusion between* 
preparing* a system in state, which is limited by the uncertainty 
principle, and making a destructive measurement on the system which can be 
more precise (but not more accurate) that the uncertainty principle.  In 
the literature the former, a preparation, is referred to as an ideal 
measurement…but then the “ideal” gets dropped and people assume that it 
applies to any measurement.  Then there’s a confusion between precision of 
single measurements and the scatter of measurements of the same system 
state.  

Heisenberg’s uncertainty  principle is commonly misinterpreted as saying 
you cannot make a precise (i.e. to arbitrarily many decimal places) 
measurement of both the x-axis momentum and the position along the x-axis 
at the same time or on the same particle.  This is untrue. It comes from 
confusing the concept of preparing particles in a state and measuring the 
state of a particle.  Heisenberg actually contributed to this confusion 
with his microscope thought experiment

The theory only says you cannot prepare a particle so that it has precise 
values of both momentum and position.  The distinction is that you can 
measure both x and p and get precise values, but when you repeat the 
process with exactly the same preparation of the particle the measurement 
will yield different values.  So even though you measure precise values 
there is no sense in which you can say the particle *had* those values 
independent of the measurement.  Your measurement has been precise, but not 
accurate.  And if you repeat the experiment many times, the scatter in the 
measured values will satisfy the uncertainty principle.  See Ballantine, 
*“Quantum 
Mechanics, A Modern Development”* pp 225–227 for more complete exposition.

To illustrate, you can prepare particles so that their position has only a 
small uncertainty and when you measure their position and momentum you will 
get a scatter plot like the blue points below. 



 Each point is a precise measurement of both momentum, *p*, and position, 
*q*.  But because the scatter in position is small the scatter in momentum 
will be big - and the uncertainty principle will the satisfied.  The green 
points illustrate the complementary case in which the particles have a 
small scatter in momentum, but a big scatter in position.  The red points 
illustrate an intermediate case, a preparation in which the momentum and 
position scatters are similar.

It might also mention that in practice, i.e. in the laboratory and in 
colliders like the LHC, the error scatter due to instrument uncertainties 
is usually much bigger than that due to the theoretical limit of the 
Heisenberg uncertainty,  So both position and momentum are measured and the 
uncertainty in their value arises from instrument limitations, not from QM


So the scatter does not arise from QM, 

Where did I say that?? 


*You wrote,* *"So both position and momentum are measured and the 
uncertainty in their value arises from instrument limitations, not from 
QM"  AG*

*You left out the preceding sentence that conditional the "So...".*

 

It arises because in QM you cannot prepare a particle to have zero scatter 
in both position and the conjugate momentum.  But that doesn't mean you 
can't measure them both precisely.  The scatter is an ensemble property.


*Do you mean, the scatter of each observable is caused by the unavoidable 
variations in how the observables are prepared, and then, by applying QM, 
one gets the UP? *

*Yes.  The measurements the UP applies to are ideal measurements that leave 
the system in the measured state, i.e. prepare it.*


*So what has this to do with "instrument limitations"? AG *




*It doesn't.  That's why instrument limitations are noted separately as 
swamping the UP in most applications. Brent*


*I can see that the measurement spreads due to instrument limitations are 
usually immensely larger than the much smaller spreads accounted for by the 
UP, but what causes these much smaller spreads? Is this a quantum effect? 
AG* 

Brent

and yet, as I recall, that when QM is developed axiomatically, the UP 
follows. I'm not sure I get it. AG 


Brent

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