On 11/3/2025 9:20 AM, Alan Grayson wrote:


On Saturday, November 1, 2025 at 9:07:12 PM UTC-6 Alan Grayson wrote:

    On Saturday, November 1, 2025 at 5:15:36 PM UTC-6 Brent Meeker wrote:



        On 10/31/2025 10:36 PM, Alan Grayson wrote:

        On Friday, October 31, 2025 at 4:15:29 PM UTC-6 Brent Meeker
        wrote:



            On 10/31/2025 6:17 AM, Alan Grayson wrote:


            On Friday, October 31, 2025 at 2:40:07 AM UTC-6 Alan
            Grayson wrote:

                1) For a body at rest, we multiply clock time, aka
                proper time, and/or coordinate time by some
                velocity, so its units become spatial. But why
                multiply by c? Is this procedure really a
                *definition* to get a velocity of c in spacetime?

                2) Proper time and coordinate time are not equal
along some arbitrary path in spacetime.

            *Note that for a body at rest, coordinate and proper
            time are identical. Hence, d(tau)/dt = 1, where t is
            coordinate time and tau is proper time. But this is not
            true for a body not at rest. How does a physical clock
            "know" is it moving, making that derivative non-zero. AG *
            You're muddling things.  For a clock moving inertially in
            flat spacetime, the coordinate times are arbitrary up to
            a linear transformation.  So d(tau)/dt=const.  not
            necessarily 1.  And the constant depends on the speed
            (time dilation).  So the coordinate speed depends on the
            choice of coordinate time, i.e. relativity of motion.

            Brent


        *In the video toward the end, he claims d(tau)/dt=1, so every
        1 sec increment in coordinate time is set to 1 sec increment
        in proper time. *

        I don't understand that.


    *It's pretty straightforward. If you're at rest in some frame in
    spacetime, you're moving along the time axis only. Along that axis
    are coordinate labels, but since you've multiplied these lables by
    c, you're left with distances (as on spatial axis), and the
    distance separation of two adjacent coordinate unit times, has a
    distance which light traverses in one second of proper time. IOW,
    along the time axis, proper and coordinate time are identical.
    Thus, d(tau)/dt=1. *

OK, you've used proper (clock) time to mark the intervals of coordinate time.

    *When motion is not strictly along time axis, that is, when you're
    not at rest, coordinate and proper time no longer coincide, no
    longer have equal values. The non trivial existential question is
    why a clock which measures only proper time, "knows" to adjust its
    rate when moving along some arbitrary path in spacetime?  AG*

It doesn't "adjust its rate".  The clock continues to measure proper time along the new spacetime direction.  But because the new direction is not parallel to the old one the intervals don't match the intervals of the clock that remained on the stationary worldline.  Motion is only relative.  So each clock sees the other as running slow because they judge the other clock to not be going in the futureward direction.

Brent

        If when you'r.e stationary in some coordinate system you can
        adjust you clock to sync with the stationary clocks and so
        long as you remain stationary you would have d(tau)/dt=1.  But
        once you started to move relative that coord system
        one-second-per-second in your frame is not
        one-second-per-second in the stationary frame. Proper time is
        one-second-per-second /along your path thru spacetime/.  In
        general it will be shorter as measured from the stationary
        frame, but remember /inertial/ motion is strictly relative so
        you will see the stationary clocks as running slow.

        *With c multiplied by coordinate time along time axis for a
        particle spatially at rest*
        That would define a forward light cone for that particle.  Why
        would you do that?
        *, isn't this tantamount to a definition with the intended
        result that spacetime velocity is c? *
        Along a path at velocity c the proper time is zero.

    *
    *
    *No. When at rest, proper time increments, and is
    indistinguishable from coordinate time. If this weren't the case,
    it would be impossible to make the unintelligible conclusion that
    all motion in spacetime is c. AG *


*One can always plot distance versus time, but in this case we must convert time to units of distance because we want to calculate (ds)^2 and have consistent units (of length). Toward the end of the video the author does exactly that, using the Pythagorean formula, but I don't see how he gets the negative sign preceding the spatial differrentials. AG *

        *You refer to time dilation, but this definition seems
        unrelated to that concept. The key question is how a physical
        clock measures something other than coordinate time when
        moving along some arbitrary path? *
        Every  clock measures only its proper time. Coordinate time in
        general is just labels.   But for convenience it is usually
        chosen to be the the time kept by some clock(s) that are taken
        to define a stationary frame (so they're stationary relative
        to one another). So any clock moving relative to that frame
        will measure proper time different from that frame.

        Brent

        *AG *

                How does a clock "know" it isn't reading coordinate
                time, but something else called proper time?
                Alternatively, what principle can we apply to put
                proper time on a logically necessary footing?

                3) When moving along some arbitrary path in
                spacetime, the Pythagorean theorem holds; that is,
                (ds)^2 = (ct)^2 + (dx)^2. So how do we get a
                negative sign preceding the spatial differentials?
                Here I'm referring to a YouTube video whose link I
                will post later.

                4) If (ds)^2 is an *invariant *under SR, does this
                hold only for the LT, but is it true for any linear
                transformation, as well as non-linear transformations?

                AG

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