# Re: Why is there something rather than nothing?

```On 9/24/2011 11:56 AM, Jason Resch wrote:
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On Sep 24, 2011, at 12:44 PM, meekerdb <meeke...@verizon.net> wrote:

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```On 9/24/2011 12:07 AM, Jason Resch wrote:
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A final consideration: do you believe Pi has such a value that when Euler's number is raised to the power of (2*Pi*i) the result is 1? Pi has a value which no human has determined, as determinig it requires infinite time and memory. If only those mathematical things known to humans exist, then Pi's true value does not exist.
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I think this is questionable. One can use the value of pi, calculate with it, determine it's relation with other quantities.
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We can use an approximation of it's value, or a definition of how to derive it's value (given infinite time and memory), but we've never known or used it's value.
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Sure we do:  sin(pi/4) = 1/sqrt(2)  uses the value.  So does e^(i*pi) = -1.

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All of it's definitions require infinities.
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The circumference of a circle whose diameter is 1.

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If these infinities don't exist, because your philosophy of mathematics is constructivist, then it follows that Pi does not exist.
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In one (of the many) senses of "exist".

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```So you can't write it's decimal expansion, how significant is that?
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Sure everything is questionable. But according to Rogers theory the unnown digits of Pi do not exist and/or have no definite value since no human has determined them.
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What this equation and reasoning suggests is that there can be certain values which are unknown to us. Such as the googolplexth digit of Pi.
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I'd say almost all (in the measure theoretic sense) values are unknown to us.

Brent
"By habit, whenever a man sees a name, he is led to figure
himself a corresponding object."
--- Jeremy Bentham (1748-1832)

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