On 15 January 2012 17:14, John Clark <johnkcl...@gmail.com> wrote:

>> > How would you generalize the Turing Test for consciousness?
>
> By doing the exact same thing we do when we evaluate our fellow human
> beings, assume that there is a direct link between intelligent behavior and
> consciousness.

I agree.  I reached the same conclusion, but starting from purely
first-person assumptions.  The distinction becomes otiose FAPP when we
are completely convinced by the evidence of intelligent behaviour and
the absence of evidence of pretence or fraudulence.  But inevitably
this means that, like all other evidential procedures, it is forever
open to revision. At any point new evidence - say of highly ingenious,
but context-limited, simulation - might contradict our former
judgement.

However, this puts us in no greater difficulties than we are already.
For example, if someone is sleepwalking but still interacts more or
less intelligently, as I once actually witnessed, is that person
conscious of the interaction? (he said he wasn't).  Or more
poignantly, I am reminded of a victim of catastrophic short-term
memory loss who, when shown a video of himself, at first denied it was
him (after all, he couldn't remember) and subsequently said "well, if
it was me, I couldn't have been conscious".

David

> On Sat, Jan 14, 2012 at 1:56 PM, Stephen P. King <stephe...@charter.net>
> wrote:
>>
>> > How would you generalize the Turing Test for consciousness?
>
> By doing the exact same thing we do when we evaluate our fellow human
> beings, assume that there is a direct link between intelligent behavior and
> consciousness. When one of our fellow creatures is drowsy they don't behave
> very intelligently and we assume they are less conscious than they were when
> they where taking a calculus exam. And when they are in a deep sleep, under
> anesthesia, or dead they behave even less intelligently and we assume (even
> though there is no proof) that their consciousness is similarly effected.
>
>  John K Clark
>
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