On 9/7/2012 6:24 AM, benjayk wrote:
Why are two machines that can be used to emlate each other regarded to be
equivalent?
In my view, there is a big difference between computing the same and being
able to emulate each other. Most importantly, emulation only makes sense
relative to another machine that is being emulated, and a correct
interpretation.
Dear benjayk,
This is what is discussed under the header of "Bisimilarity" and
bisimulation equivalence iff simulation = emulation.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bisimulation
"a bisimulation is a binary relation between state transition systems,
associating systems which behave in the same way in the sense that one
system simulates the other and vice-versa."
My own use of the term seeks a more generalized version that does
not assume that the relation is necessarily binary nor strictly
monotonic. The key is that a pair of machines can have an "image" of
each other and that they are capable of acting on that image.
--
Onward!
Stephen
http://webpages.charter.net/stephenk1/Outlaw/Outlaw.html
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