Dear Bruno and other loyal followers of the list,
I had a thought tonight -- half baked and somewhat vague, but nevertheless
I thought relevant to your discussions here...
Is it not true, on the basis of what you laid out in Sane2004, that there
is a necessarily inverse relationship between omnipotence and omniscience?
For consider, the UDA, whatever it may be, has the infinite power to
continue to crank out the algorithim. We, as admittedly self-consistent and
yet ignorant of the fact of our self-consistency, have the ability to be
omniscient (in the sense that we know the math that leads to our lack of
omniscience and yet implies a universal unfolding of every possibility, all
of which you will be there to witness) yet utterly unable to interfere with
the omnipotence of the UDA, which continues cranking out its various
arithmetical possibilities through its own omnipotence, utterly oblivious
of the subjectivity (ies) involved.
I'm looking forward to all of your responses for the pleasure of learning
about this stuff...
Thanks for all being so smart and lucid, even when you do have opinions I
don't necessarily agree with (looking at you, John Clark)
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