On 10/8/2013 2:51 AM, Russell Standish wrote:
On Mon, Oct 07, 2013 at 10:20:14AM +0200, Bruno Marchal wrote:
On 07 Oct 2013, at 07:36, Russell Standish wrote:
and Bp&p as "he knows p", so the person order of
the pronoun is also not relevant.
Yes, you can read that in that way, but you get only the 3-view of
Let us define [o]p by Bp & p
I am just pointing on the difference between B([o]p) and [o]([o]p).
Isn't B(Bp)=Bp so:
B(Bp & p) =? B(Bp & p) & (Bp & P)
Bp =? Bp & p -> false
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