"The inverse square law is true in Platonia.  In the real world it's just a
very good approximation."

How do you know this is true?


On Fri, Dec 20, 2013 at 7:19 PM, meekerdb <meeke...@verizon.net> wrote:

>  On 12/20/2013 3:28 PM, LizR wrote:
>
>  On 21 December 2013 08:12, Stephen Paul King 
> <stephe...@provensecure.com>wrote:
>
>>  Dear Jason,
>>
>>    I think it was you that wrote (to me):
>> "I was not defending that view, but pointing out how ridiculous it would
>> be to suppose mathematical truth does not exist before it is found by
>> someone somewhere."
>>
>>     I am trying to get some thought going. Why is it so ridiculous,
>> exactly? If there exists a mathematical theorem that requires
>> a countable infinity of integers to represent, no finite version can exist
>> of it, in other words, can its proof be found? What is it that "makes it
>> true"? If we remove the possibility of ever proving a theorem, what is that
>> theorem's possible truth value?
>>
>>  The maths that describes the behaviour of physical systems must be true
> whether anyone knows about it or not, so long as those physical systems
> continue to operate in the same manner. For example the inverse square law
> was true for billions of years before life evolved on Earth, and for
> billions more before Newton discovered it, as can be shown by observing
> distant galaxies.
>
>
> The inverse square law is true in Platonia.  In the real world it's just a
> very good approximation.
>
> Brent
>
>
>  It also seems unlikely that simple arithmetic didn't work until Ug the
> caveman (or woman) discovered it. The big bang seems to have done
> nucleosynthesis by adding particles together quite happily when presumably
> there was no one around to know about it.
>
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-- 

Kindest Regards,

Stephen Paul King

Senior Researcher

Mobile: (864) 567-3099

stephe...@provensecure.com

 http://www.provensecure.us/


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