On 10 Feb 2014, at 06:42, Stathis Papaioannou wrote:

On 9 February 2014 21:22, Bruno Marchal <marc...@ulb.ac.be> wrote:

On 09 Feb 2014, at 02:47, Stathis Papaioannou wrote:

On 7 February 2014 07:47, Bruno Marchal <marc...@ulb.ac.be> wrote:

Well, I *could* be a zombie and still say that, unless you consider
the idea of zombies contradictory (which maybe it is).



I bet you are not a zombie. But you seem to illustrate my point, if
epiphenomenalism is true, despite you are not a zombie, you could be one,
and that is a step toward the elimination of the person.


I know I'm not a zombie, but you don't know that.


OK.



I don't know how you
would bet on it either, since you could not prove it in order to get
your payout!


I meant "I hope".The hope-payout is very big: as it means that I am not
losing my time discussing with a zombie.




The most you can know is that if a certain substitution
is made in by brain then *if* I am conscious I will continue to be
conscious.


I can't know that either. If you are conscious, you might well become a zombie after the substitution, if comp is false for example. I cannot know for sure that comp is true. I can know it in the Theatetus' way, but this means only that I believe in comp, and that God knows that it is true.

But you can know that a particular type of substitution that preserves
the 3p functional organisation of my brain will also preserve its
consciousness (if it had it to begin with), otherwise we could make
partial zombies, which are absurd. This is an important result. It is
a proof of comp.

I might still die in the process. The other can be an "impostor" instead of a zombie. Partial zombie does not make sense, but partial impostor might make sense. (I must think more about that).

We cannot prove comp, in the same sense that we cannot prove that we survive any instant in life. It is "trivial", but that plays some role.

The argument of partial zombie makes non-comp non-plausible, but it cannot be said to prove that comp is true. It is easy to build artificial (ad hoc) non comp theories to refute the "provability" of comp. Some people agree that they will survive if you replace their brain neuron by neuron, but that they would die if you copy them and destroy them, and with non comp, this might be possible. This does not make sense, IF we assume comp at the start.





not because it is exercising a particular strategy
except in a manner of speaking. But the substantive point I want to
make is that there is no downward causation,



I don't think there is any causation at all. Causation is a modal notion, and as to be treated indexically to, and with comp, in a way related to
the
many computations in arithmetic.



for if there were we
would observe magical events. If you accept that then I agree with
you, any apparent disagreement is really just semantics.



We must still discuss if this is very semantics. Some higher level laws
can
be quite autonomous relatively to lower level laws, and some downard causation, even if reductible in theory to particles or numbers, remains
meaningful at his own level.


Downward causation would involve, for example, a neuron spontaneously
firing when all the biochemical parameters show that it should not.
That would be something miraculous. It has never been observed, or we
would know there is something very wrong with science.


Imagine that I am a coffee addict, so that when, in Helsinki, they propose to copy me, and reconstitute me in a number of cities (an hundred one, say),
I ask "please don't reconstitute me in the cities which they have no
coffee".

Let us assume that my wish will be exacted, and that I can know that in
advance. In that case P(coffee) = 1.

I do see this as a sort of downward causation, despite no deterministic laws
are involved.

Or imagine that I have to present a show, where I will prove to the audience that I can distort a metallic bar without touching it. To do my trick I put an absolute quantum bomb in the room, and as long as the metallic bar does not distort itself, I trigger the atomic bomb. "Absolute" means that the
probability of surviving the explosion is null, both for me and the
audience. The, like with the coffee situation, I select the reality, by quantum suicide, in which the metal bar distort itself (well actually I will select only those where I believe this, but let us abstract from this here). That would also be a sort of action of my mind (with the goal to distort the metallic bar), on matter, without contradicting arithmetic or physics.

That is a far stretched example, but it suggests that choosing is a sort of suicide, where you "kill" the continuations you want to avoid, and we cannot decide in advance if such self-selection have not already be done, making consciousness selecting certain type of realities, from our points of view.

In particular, if I decide to do a cup of coffee, from my perspective, there will be a downward causation. Even if in truth it does not exist, at the level where I am living, saying that it does not exist would be identifying
a proof and a truth, and makes me inconsistent.

In arithmetic, there is no causation at all, and physics is a first person plural constructs of the average universal machines, so that the whole causation notion is "epiphenomenal" on truth. It does not make it illusory at the provability or effective level where I live (G, Z, X). Like I just said to Brent, I begin to think that the argument against free- will, or again a role for consciousness, confuse G and G* (provability and truth, or
Z and Z*).

Uses of Gödel's theorem against mechanism (Lucas, Penrose) make often a confusion between G and S4Grz, or between body and soul (or 3p and 1p). It is interesting (imo) that argument against free will might be a confusion of some points of view too, notably of confusing provability and truth, or a logic x and its true extension x* (which I often called "blasphem", as it consists in taking God's view, and applying on Earth: that makes a machine
inconsistent).

I am not yet sure if this really works.

It's interesting that you think quantum suicide effects are an example
of downward causation. It would, in fact, look like magic to a
scientist who observed it. The problem is, there aren't any scientists
who have observed it and reported it.

Some believe that the origin of life is so improbable, that it comes from some "quantum suicide", or analog post-selection effect.



So it remains true that there is
no downward causation in science.

You mean "in reality"? Which reality? Even arithmetic is full of downward causation, like "Deep blue lost the game because it never studied Nimzovitch entries".

At some level, there is no downward causation (it is just addition and multiplication, or just particles and force), but it is false that we live at such level. At the level where we live there are downward causation. The physical laws only support my wanting to send you this post. I don't send this post due to physical or arithmetical laws, in any genuine sense. When a machine is as complex as a Löbian one, their laws of behavior have nothing to do with the laws used for their implementation, that would be, I think, a confusion of level. With comp, if we reiterate a similar confusion of level, you can say that there is no physical causation at all. The reason why an apple falls is no more that it obeys gravitation laws, but only that addition and multiplication makes some number in some relative state to believe (correctly) that some computation is more frequent than others. Emerging things, even 1p, can be as real, and partially autonomous with proper higher level laws, as what they emerge from. In:

"Why did Lola cries this night?" ---"because she made a nightmare"
"Why did Lola cries this night?" ---"because she obeys QM".

The first explanation can make genuine sense. The second is true (say) but is true also for "Why did Lola not cry?", and is spurious at the level where the crying make sense. The use of the second explanation to make the first one illusory is the main error of the reductionist.

Let me try to put this in an another way. All universal machine can imitate all universal machine. A root or bottom universal machine cannot have a downward causation on herself. But she can imitate another universal system having downward causation, even complete in the sense that the second machine can be allowed to modify itself completely.

Brain are like that: it cannot modify itself by its own will, but the mind can do that to some extent (nature put obvious barriers, but then we do modify the brain in some downward way, by taking an aspirin, for example). To say that consciousness is epiphenomenal is like to say that someone took an aspirin because of QM, but this explains nothing (even if true): the genuine reason is that the guy has an unpleasant conscious experience that he want to ease. The laws of physics or arithmetic makes it possible for you to express your point, but the content of your post is explained by your awareness of the questions, your taste for the field, your pleasure to argue rationally, your personality, etc. It is not explained by QM, as this explains all posts on all lists in all forums in an empty way. Your answer can be supported by the laws, but the laws does not explain your answer at the level where your answer can make sense to me.

Bruno





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Stathis Papaioannou

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