On Thu, Feb 26, 2015 at 09:55:26PM +1100, Bruce Kellett wrote:
> 
> >Does a measuring apparatus always have to be eigenvalue of some
> >position operator, though?
> 
> If you are doing quantum mechanics, yes. The result of any
> measurement is an eigenvalue of the corresponding operator, and the
> system is left in the corresponding eigenstate.
> 
> 
> >What about variants of the experiment that
> >record the results of the measurement as bits in a computer
> >memory. Surely that would be in a basis that is eigenvalue of the
> >charge of the memory cell transistor, not a position operator at all?
> 
> That is not a measurement unless you can specify the relevant
> quantum operator. It is usually the case that most measurements, of
> whatever quantity, boil down to pointer positions. That can be
> recorded digitally if you like, but the basic measurement is still a
> position measurement and you need a basis in the corresponding
> Hilbert space in order to specify what are the
> eigenvalues/eigenvectors of the possible results.
> 
> Bruce
> 

I changed the title of this subthread, as I think it is an interesting
point worth exploring further.

I have heard this claim made vaguely before, though I don't remember
whom - do you have any references where someone has advanced this
argument?

I still think the claim unlikely - the measurement of an interference
pattern of coherent light doesn't seem to involve any position basis
that I can see, for example.

I realise this seems a bit like whack-a-mole, but you are defending a
strong thesis, and in the absence of a well-articulated reasoning for
it, to see potential counter-examples deconstructed in front of my
eyes is educational. :).

Cheers

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