On 9 June 2015 at 14:00, meekerdb <[email protected]> wrote:

>  On 6/8/2015 4:16 PM, LizR wrote:
>
>  On 9 June 2015 at 05:31, meekerdb <[email protected]> wrote:
>
>>  On 6/8/2015 1:03 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:
>>
>>   or that maths exists independently of mathematicians.
>>
>> That even just arithmetical truth is independent of mathematician. This
>> is important because everyone agree with any axiomatic of the numbers, but
>> that is not the case for analysis, real numbers, etc.
>>
>> Everyone agrees on ZFC in the same sense.  So does that make set theory
>> and its consequences real?
>>
>>  Reality isn't defined by what everyone agrees on.
>
>
> Tell it to Bruno, I was just following him.
>

If it was then the religious majority throughout history would have been
right.

>   What makes ZFC (or whatever) real, or not, is whether it kicks back.
>
> Mathematics doesn't kick back - except metaphorically.
>

Are you claiming an alien in another galaxy wouldn't find that arithmetic
works? I'm not making any metaphysical claims about the status of maths,
merely saying that most mathematicians would, I think, agree that two
people working independently can make the same mathematical discovery by
different routes, and that some maths has real-world applications, and that
when it does, it works. (But I'm not sure how much kicking back you need
from something, maybe being independently discoverable and working isn't
enough?)

>   Is it something that was invented, and could equally well have been
> invented differently, or was it discovered as a result of following a chain
> of logical reasoning from certain axioms?
>
> I'd say ZFC and arithmetic were both invented and then an axiomatization
> was invented for each of them.  I'm not sure what "invented differently"
> means?...getting to the same axiomatization by a different historical
> path?  Or inventing something similar, but not identical, as ZF is
> different from ZFC.
>
> It means that two people starting from the same axioms and using the same
system of logic came up with two different results (and neither made a
mistake). If within a given system A always leads to B, then it's
reasonable to say B is discovered - like, for example, a certain endgame in
chess leading to a particular set of possible conclusions. But if within a
system A can lead to B, C, D etc then it's reasonable to say it's invented,
like a competition to finish (within the grammatical system of English) a
poem that begins "And now the end is near..."

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