> On 5 Apr 2018, at 07:25, agrayson2...@gmail.com wrote:
> 
>  Does a macro object, say a billiard ball, have a definite wave function? 
> That is, does it have one in principle, even if it can't be written down? If 
> one can speak of the wf of the universe, one would think individual macro 
> objects would also have wf's. TIA, AG

Assuming QM without collapse, a subject of a possible universe has no wave by 
itself, but it can have a relative subwave relatively to the choice of a base 
to describe the universal wave. In our case, evolution has chosen the relative 
base, so that we can approximate isolated object by their position. But it is 
only an inside phenomenological view. Then with Mechanism, the wave itself is 
phenomenological, and there is plausibly no universal wave per se neither.

Bruno 





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