On Tuesday, May 1, 2018 at 6:57:14 AM UTC, scerir wrote:
>
> *AG: 'I suppose people will appeal to entanglement and decoherence to try 
> to make sense of how a measurement occurs. Nevertheless,  I tend strongly 
> to the view that the theory is inherently irreversible; that is, TIME 
> IRREVERSIBLE IN PRINCIPLE  If so, it implies the arrow of time has its 
> origin at the quantum level.'* 
>
> #### Maybe. 
>
> But ... since we say that there is non-separability between 
> (position/momentum or time/energy) entangled quantum states, can we also 
> say there is quantum non-separability not just *in space* (i.e. correlation 
> between space-like separated events) but also *in time* (there is no 
> *causal* ordering)? 
>
> Are there Bell's inequalities for correlations *in time*?  s.
>
> https://arxiv.org/abs/1712.06884
>
> https://arxiv.org/abs/1708.00248
>

*If two events are space-like separated, I think it's correct to say there 
is no causal ordering. However, when analyzing time reversal for 
measurements -- whether or not it exists in QM -- aren't we dealing with 
time-like ordering in the laboratory wherein the "first" measurement 
occurred? AG* 

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