# Re: Interference of probability waves

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On Friday, January 11, 2019 at 11:08:42 AM UTC, Bruno Marchal wrote:
>
>
> On 11 Jan 2019, at 11:02, agrays...@gmail.com <javascript:> wrote:
>
> If probability values are always positive and between 0 and 1, how does
> one get destructive interference, or constructive interfering probability
> values within the acceptable range? Brent once answered this question but I
> have completely forgotten the answer. AG
>
>
>
> The “whole problem of QM” is there. The coefficients of the terms in the
> superposition are the “amplitude of probability”, and they can be negative.
> The probability is given by the square of the amplitude of probability. As
> long as we don’t make any observation, the wave acts like a wave, and the
> amplitudes can be added or subtracted. To get the probability for the
> measurement result on phi, we take the square of the amplitude (in the base
> corresponding to what we want to measure).
>```
```
*OK, but for positive amplitudes which are added, what guarantees that
using Born's rule the result remains less than or equal to 1? AG *

>
> With Everett (non collapse), measurement is only self-entanglement.
> Normally the Born rule should be justified from this, and some
> justification exists, either based on frequency-operator (like Graham,
> Preskill, and others) or by using Gleason theorem, etc.
>
> Note that I do not claim that Everett formulation of QM solves all
> conceptual problems of QM. But mechanism might and should. The psi wave
> correspond to a description of a first person plural reality in a context
> of many computations, like mechanism justifies, except that the price is
> the needed to get the waves from the logic of the measure one observable
> (provable, true and consistent). That makes mechanism testable, and QM
> confirms it, but there are many arithmetical-physics proposition which
> needs to still be tested.
>
> Bruno
>
>
>
>
>
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