> On 17 Jan 2019, at 09:33, agrayson2...@gmail.com wrote:
> On Thursday, January 17, 2019 at 3:58:48 AM UTC, Brent wrote:
> On 1/16/2019 7:25 PM, agrays...@gmail.com <javascript:> wrote:
>> On Monday, January 14, 2019 at 6:12:43 AM UTC, Brent wrote:
>> On 1/13/2019 9:51 PM, agrays...@gmail.com <> wrote:
>>> This means, to me, that the arbitrary phase angles have absolutely no 
>>> effect on the resultant interference pattern which is observed. But isn't 
>>> this what the phase angles are supposed to effect? AG
>> The screen pattern is determined by relative phase angles for the different 
>> paths that reach the same point on the screen.  The relative angles only 
>> depend on different path lengths, so the overall phase angle is irrelevant.
>> Brent
>> Sure, except there areTWO forms of phase interference in Wave Mechanics; the 
>> one you refer to above, and another discussed in the Stackexchange links I 
>> previously posted. In the latter case, the wf is expressed as a 
>> superposition, say of two states, where we consider two cases; a 
>> multiplicative complex phase shift is included prior to the sum, and 
>> different complex phase shifts multiplying each component, all of the form 
>> e^i (theta). Easy to show that interference exists in the latter case, but 
>> not the former. Now suppose we take the inner product of the wf with the ith 
>> eigenstate of the superposition, in order to calculate the probability of 
>> measuring the eigenvalue of the ith eigenstate, applying one of the 
>> postulates of QM, keeping in mind that each eigenstate is multiplied by a 
>> DIFFERENT complex phase shift.  If we further assume the eigenstates are 
>> mutually orthogonal, the probability of measuring each eigenvalue does NOT 
>> depend on the different phase shifts. What happened to the interference 
>> demonstrated by the Stackexchange links? TIA, AG 
> Your measurement projected it out. It's like measuring which slit the photon 
> goes through...it eliminates the interference.
> Brent
> That's what I suspected; that going to an orthogonal basis, I departed from 
> the examples in Stackexchange where an arbitrary superposition is used in the 
> analysis of interference. Nevertheless, isn't it possible to transform from 
> an arbitrary superposition to one using an orthogonal basis? And aren't all 
> bases equivalent from a linear algebra pov? If all bases are equivalent, why 
> would transforming to an orthogonal basis lose interference, whereas a 
> general superposition does not? TIA, AG

I don’t understand this. All the bases we have used all the time are supposed 
to be orthonormal bases. We suppose that the scalar product (e_i e_j) = 
delta_i_j, when presenting the Born rule, and the quantum formalism.


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