> On 25 Feb 2019, at 20:35, Philip Thrift <cloudver...@gmail.com> wrote:
> 
> via
> https://twitter.com/JDHamkins/status/1100090709527408640
> 
> Joel David Hamkins   @JDHamkins
> 
> Must there be numbers we cannot describe or define? Definability in 
> mathematics and the Math Tea argument
> Pure Mathematics Research Seminar at the University of East Anglia in Norwich 
> on Monday, 25 February, 2019.
> 
> 
> Abstract:
> 
> An old argument, heard perhaps at a good math tea, proceeds: “there must be 
> some real numbers that we can neither describe nor define, since there are 
> uncountably many real numbers, but only countably many definitions.


But that argument is rather weak, as the notion of cardinality is a relative 
notion, depending of the model (not the theory) that we might use. There are 
countable models of Cantor’s theory of set and the transfinite (cf the paradox 
of Skolem). If you agree o identify a real number with a total computable 
function (from N to N), as Turing did originally, then you can prove the 
existence of specific non definable real number, in any rich enough extension 
of any essentially undecidable theory.

It is very simple, any theory reich enough to define a universal 
machine/number, is automatically essentially undecidable. It is a generator of 
infinitely many surprises for *any* machines and super-marching, etc. We know 
now that we know basically nothing, with such “rich” theories. Elementary 
arithmetic is already essentially undecidable.

You can change the logic, and will get quite different view on the real 
numbers. In brouwer’s intuitionistic logic, and in the effective topos (which 
generalises Kleene’s realisability notion, and is based on the category of 
partial combinatory algebra): we have that all real number are computable, and 
all functions are continuous. I am not sure if we get that all real numbers 
will be definable, though. They might be not-not-definable ...



> ” Does it withstand scrutiny? In this talk, I will discuss the phenomenon of 
> pointwise definable structures in mathematics, structures in which every 
> object has a property that only it exhibits. A mathematical structure is 
> Leibnizian, in contrast, if any pair of distinct objects in it exhibit 
> different properties.

x ≠ y ->. Ax ≠ Ay, that is Ax = Ay ->. x = y. That is the axiom of 
extensionality (in Combinators, lama calculus, set theories).

I have used it in the elimination of variables in the combinations. It is a 
god’s gift, as it leads to simple efficacious combinators. It is, with the 
combinators, equivalent to [x](Ax) = A, when A has no free occurence of x. Not 
to be confuse with ([x]A)x = A (which is always true, and just defines what 
elimination of x means). 



> Is there a Leibnizian structure with no definable elements?

Yes. The classical reals, or the classical set of total computable functions.



> Must indiscernible elements in a mathematical structure be automorphic images 
> of one another?

No. If we cannot discern them, we cannot build a morphism between them. I would 
say.


> We shall discuss many elementary yet interesting examples, eventually working 
> up to the proof that every countable model of set theory has a pointwise 
> definable extension, in which every mathematical object is definable.
> 
> http://jdh.hamkins.org/must-there-be-number-we-cannot-define-norwich-february-2019/
> 
> Lecture notes:
> http://jdh.hamkins.org/wp-content/uploads/2019/02/Must-every-number-be-definable_-Norwich-Feb-2019.pdf

I will take a look, but that does not make much sense, unless the logic is 
weakemed in some way. In some intuitionist set theory with choice, it might 
make sense.

Bruno




> 
> 
> - pt
> 
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