On Wed, Dec 6, 2023, 5:40 PM Tomas Pales <litewav...@gmail.com> wrote:

> A split into a finite number of worlds would solve the measure problem but
> where did he get his finite number?


My guess is he is using something like the number of distinguishable
quantum states given by the Bekenstein bound, or the total number of
degrees of freedom for the 10^23 molecules of gas in a cubic meter of air.


And why are physicists like Tegmark and Greene still talking about the
> measure problem if the number is finite?
>

I am not sure, perhaps they are considering it as infinite across a
spatially infinite universe. But we only have access to a finite portion of
the universe, so perhaps it is fine to ignore the rest of it (infinite
space and universes) at least as it may relate to the measure problem.

Jason


> On Wednesday, December 6, 2023 at 2:52:31 PM UTC+1 Jason Resch wrote:
>
>>
>>
>> On Wed, Dec 6, 2023, 7:24 AM Tomas Pales <litew...@gmail.com> wrote:
>>
>>> But isn't there a problem when the number of worlds after the split is
>>> infinite? In popular science books they always write that if the number of
>>> worlds is infinite then there are different ways of counting the
>>> probabilities and so we can arrive at different probabilities than those
>>> given by the Born rule. They call it the "measure problem" (not measurement
>>> problem).
>>>
>>
>>
>> Here, at about 6 minutes and 30 seconds in, Deutsch is asked how many
>> universes are there. He gives a finite number:
>>
>> https://youtu.be/Kj2lxDf9R3Y
>>
>> Jason
>>
>>
>>> On Wednesday, December 6, 2023 at 7:28:54 AM UTC+1 Jason Resch wrote:
>>>
>>>> https://youtu.be/BU8Lg_R2DL0
>>>>
>>>> This is timely.
>>>>
>>>> Jason
>>>>
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