--- In FairfieldLife@yahoogroups.com, "Vaj" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote: > > --- In FairfieldLife@yahoogroups.com, cardemaister <no_reply@> wrote: > > > > - > > > > "They" seem to translate "saMyamaat" in 3.44 to 'sameness'. > > That sucks! :D > > > > Actually it highlights how differently the word samyama is seen in a yoga-darshana text (the > Patanjali yoga-sutras) and a nondual Shaivite text (i.e. the shiva-sutras of Vasagupta). > > If you don't understand the difference, then you're probably not qualified to comment. :-) >
Perhaps. The translation is so "commentary-ish" that it's a bit hard to evaluate it. OTOH, I like the translation of 1.18: lokaanandaH (loka+aanandaH) samaadhisukham The joy of his mystical trance (samaadhi) is bliss for the whole universe. ------------------- That seems to support the idea of Maharishi-effect: someone being in samaadhi (e.g. during YF) radiates happiness into the whole universe? IMO, in Sanskrit, as I believe in English and many other languages, the preferred position of the subject in a sentence is before the predicative, or whatever that sentence constituent is called in English. For the above translation IMO one has to take "samaadhi-sukham" to be the subject, and "lokaanandaH" to be the predicative, as if the word order would be: samaadhisukhaM lokaanandaH
