--- In [email protected], "authfriend" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> 
wrote:
> --- In [email protected], cardemaister <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> 
> wrote:
> > 
> > http://www.mysticalsun.com/cymatics/cymatics.html
> > 
> > In his research with the tonoscope, Jenny noticed that when the 
> > vowels of the ancient languages of Hebrew and Sanskrit were 
> > pronounced, the sand took the shape of the written symbols for 
> > these vowels, while our modern languages, on the other hand, did 
> > not generate the same result! [huh-duh?! - carde] How is this 
> > possible? Did the ancient Hebrews and Indians know this? Is there 
> > something to the concept of "sacred language," which both of 
these 
> > are sometimes called?
> 
> <snip>
> 
> I just read the Web page.  Utterly fascinating.
> 
> But I'm puzzled.  Are Sanskrit or Hebrew vowels,
> pronounced in isolation, different from vowels
> in modern languages pronounced in isolation?  I
> can understand that some would be, but isn't there
> a relatively limited number of vowel sounds the
> human vocal apparatus can produce?

That's what I thought too. At least that part seem
like bogus.

> 
> Maybe it's a continuum, such that there can be
> extremely refined differences.  But there are no
> "native" ancient Hebrew or Sanskrit speakers;
> these would have to be second languages.  So how
> could there be a *standard* for the pronunciation
> of each vowel, if very refined variations would
> make a significant difference between the sand
> patterns?
> 
> Seems to me you'd have to go in the other direction
> and say the standard for a vowel pronunciation is
> whether it creates the shape of the symbol for it
> in the sand pattern.
> 
> I'm not at all sure what I'm talking about here; I'm
> just trying to make it come together in my head.





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