--- In [email protected], new.morning <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> 
wrote:
<snip>
> One factor is the tendency to respond to what one infers the poster
> implied. Whew, what a sentence, but its a useful model: 
> 
> a) words written ===>> 
> 
>     b1) meanings intentionally implied, or 
>     b2) meanings unconsciously implied, but logically present (the
> writer has not realized the implications, but readers may)

For example, in a recent thread, Lawson wrote 
(regarding Andrew Skolnick):

When it comes to TM and other matters New-Age-ish,
he's more than a bit obsessed.

Vaj replied:

Sounds like you too [sic] have a lot in common.

I commented:

If so, the big difference would be that Sparaig
doesn't attempt to deceive or mislead anybody.

Vaj responded:

That was joke, right?

Now, logically, the implication of Vaj's response
is that Lawson does indeed attempt to mislead and
deceive.

Just to make sure, I asked Vaj if that was indeed
what he meant.  In fact, I've now asked him three
separate times.

What is the logical implication, do you suppose,
of his failure to reply?







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