--- In [email protected], scienceofabundance 
<[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
>
> --- In [email protected], "authfriend" <jstein@> 
> wrote:
> >
> > --- In [email protected], scienceofabundance 
> > <no_reply@> wrote:
> > >
> > > --- In [email protected], "authfriend" <jstein@> 
> > > wrote:
> > > >
> > > > --- In [email protected], scienceofabundance 
> > > > <no_reply@> wrote:
> > > > >
> > > > > --- In [email protected], "sparaig" <sparaig@> 
> > wrote:
> > > > > >
> > > > > --snip--
> > > > >  BTW, TM can *appear* to be 
> > > > > > addicting, but the dynamics don't quite fit in my 
> experience. 
> > > > > 
> > > > > Most non-recovering addicts of any thing will say the same 
> thing
> > > > > you have said above.
> > > > 
> > > > So therefore, anyone who says they're not an addict
> > > > of something *is* an addict, right?
> > > > 
> > > > Because those who really *aren't* addicts would not
> > > > say they weren't addicts.  Instead, they'd say...
> > > > 
> > > > ...er...
> > > > 
> > > > ....er indeed...so, the fallacy of your "logic" 
is .....er.... 
> > > > not evident to you... [Or put more simply -- neither of your 
> > > > statements follow from mine.]
> > 
> > I don't think you quite got it.
> 
> Yep, I got it. Neither of your statements above follow from 
> mine...same as before.

Ah, but you appear to have missed this part of my
last post: 

> > Let's try it this way: Most nonrecovering addicts
> > will say the same thing Lawson said above, and
> > therefore...
> > 
> > ...what?

So tell us.  Therefore what?  What *does* follow from
your statement?






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