There's englithened and there's enlightened. Just because someone experiences 
PC 24/7 
doesn't mean they can't be drawn out of this state by the right 
situtation/drug/stress. 
OTOH, MMY claims that someone who is in full-blown Unity can stand on the 
surface of 
the Sun without being harmed.

That's a different kettle of fish entirely, I think.


--- In [email protected], "suziezuzie" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
>
> How would you evaluate the following. 
> 
> Enlightenment is defined as stabilized Being or Self during the three 
> states of consciousness, waking, dreaming, and deep sleep. The Self 
> is not overshadowed, an aspect of the nervous system is able to 
> maintain that fullness at all times. The Self behaves as a continual 
> witness to the ever changing relative states of consciousness. 
> 
> Now let's assume that Joe is enlightened and for some reason, he 
> consumes a strong drug such as hash, LSD, etc. If Joe is enlightened, 
> by definition, we could assume that his experience would be that of 
> witnessing the effects of the drug, the Being or Self remaining 
> intact during the effect of the drug on the nervous system, whatever 
> that may be. The effect of the drug would be experienced as separated 
> from the unchanging fullness of Self. From an outward viewpoint of an 
> observer, Joe may appear to be under the effect of  the drug, maybe 
> some physical or even some mental manifestations but not what we 
> would characterize as mental illness such as psychosis or paranoia 
> because of the presence of the drug.  
> 
> So my question is this. If a person who has been meditating for most 
> of their life takes a strong psychotropic drug and experiences a 
> psychosis such as paranoia, could we assume that this person is not 
> enlightened? In other words, can the effect of the drug be a measure 
> of Self, its ability to remain constant even in the presence of the 
> chemical effects of a drug? If a person becomes psychotic after 
> consuming lets say for example, strong marijuana, doesn't that mean 
> that the mental illness to some degree was present even before the 
> drug was ingested? The drug amplifies what is already present. In the 
> case of an enlightened person, by definition, there shouldn't be any 
> pre existing psychosis and therefore no mental illness.
>





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