In a message dated 7/13/07 2:56:54 P.M. Central Daylight Time,  
[EMAIL PROTECTED] writes:

Isn't it  correct that the original constitution which declared slaves 
3/5th (or  something like that) men was based upon the  Bible?




Not to my knowledge. That was a political move based on representation in  
the Congress. I think Northerners didn't  want slaves counted in the  census 
which would give Southern States more seats in the House of  Representatives.



************************************** Get a sneak peak of the all-new AOL at 
http://discover.aol.com/memed/aolcom30tour

Reply via email to