Who says that 'a blues in D' always means a mixolydian blues?
Did you ever hear/play an archaic blues, a bird blues, a 'minor blues', coltrane blues or a blues from the contemporary jazz players?
If it's a minor blues I would use the normal minor key signature (mr. P.C.-like).
If it's a bird blues: the major key signature.
Even if the piece is *really* rooted in a mixolydian modality (*one*), I would choose the correspondent major key signature to put it on paper, but I wouldn't mind if another composer would use another method, e.g. no key signature at all!
Well, that's my answer.
Regards,
Klaas de Jong.
P.S. What does it mean that you're from the Virginia Tech Department of Music?
John Howell heeft op zaterdag, 30 aug 2003 om 23:09 (Europe/Amsterdam) het volgende geschreven:
OK, you're notating a blues in D -- that's D mixolydian. What's your key signature, the standard 2 sharps with an accidental for every C, or 1 sharp to reflect the mode?
Don't know any rule (I never do!), but I'd use 2 sharps because 1 sharp implies a tonic on G and would introduce confusion. Bartok got away with using non-standard key signatures, but most people don't attempt them.
This is, of course, quite a different thing from the minor key baroque pieces which lacked a flat in the key signature that we would think should be there. Some modern editors add that flat, others do not. And it was, indeed, the result of modal dorian practice carrying over into the baroque period. But it strikes me that this would not carry over into neo-modal practice. I look forward to the definitive answers.
John
-- John & Susie Howell Virginia Tech Department of Music Blacksburg, Virginia, U.S.A. 24061-0240 Vox (540) 231-8411 Fax (540) 231-5034 (mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]) http://www.music.vt.edu/faculty/howell/howell.html _______________________________________________ Finale mailing list [EMAIL PROTECTED] http://lists.shsu.edu/mailman/listinfo/finale
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