No, but there are editions of music before 1900 even in our times ;-)

And we were talking about modern practice of publishing music, but not necessarily of contemporary music.

Johannes

Owain Sutton wrote:
I'm not aware of any consistent usage of 1st/2nd endings much before 1900. I'm happy to be corrected, though.


Johannes Gebauer wrote:

I don't understand. Why is the problem only relevant in 20th century music?

Johannes

Owain Sutton wrote:

Surely we're only talking about twentieth music, if the initial problem arising from first/second time endings is to be relevant?



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