No, but there are editions of music before 1900 even in our times ;-)
And we were talking about modern practice of publishing music, but not necessarily of contemporary music.
Johannes
Owain Sutton wrote:
I'm not aware of any consistent usage of 1st/2nd endings much before 1900. I'm happy to be corrected, though.
Johannes Gebauer wrote:
I don't understand. Why is the problem only relevant in 20th century music?
Johannes
Owain Sutton wrote:
Surely we're only talking about twentieth music, if the initial problem arising from first/second time endings is to be relevant?
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