At 12:07 PM 2/3/05 -0500, Andrew Stiller wrote:
>In any event, "emancipation of the dissonance" certainly does not 
>imply elimination of the consonant. I recently had a conversation 
>with a couple of young composers, one of whom had never heard the 
>term. The other one helpfully said, "it means you don't have to 
>resolve them."

Brilliant!

I'm not entirely sure about not eliminating the consonant, though. Again,
I'm sloshing around in bad old guy memory territory, but didn't Schoenberg
alter one of the pitches in one appearance of a row in his Op. 25 Suite so
a consonant major chord was not produced? I analyzed that thing in the late
1960s, and seem to recall that coming up in the discussion. But I surrender
to the better-prepared theorists among us!

Dennis



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