On 29 Jun 2005 at 13:12, Phil Daley wrote:

> At 6/29/2005 12:58 PM, David W. Fenton wrote:
> 
>  >On 29 Jun 2005 at 3:59, Darcy James Argue wrote:
>  >
>  >> I didn't realize that the 2x3/4 division was more common than the
>  >> 3x2/4 division, but of course you're right about the correct rests
>  in >> that case. > >6/4 has always been a 2-beat measure, just like
>  6/8. > >If that were not the case, there'd be no reason for either
>  meter to >exist at all, as 6/8 divided into 3 beats is just 3/4, and
>  6/4 >divided likewise, just 3/2. > >Why would anyone use a 6 for 3
>  beats?
> 
> Why does anyone do anything?

Ignorance of convention?

Failure to understand the way modern time signatures work?

> I have seen 3/2 music written in 6/4.
> 
> Don't ask me why . . .

You seem to think there's nothing inherently illogical about using 
6/4 for a 3 subdivision. I think it goes against the whole 
organization of the way time signatures work, using something that 
clearly means one thing (2 beats) to mean something else for which 
there's another, simpler symbol (3/2).

To me, it smells of borderline incompetence, a lack of comprehension 
of the way the notational system actually works.

-- 
David W. Fenton                        http://www.bway.net/~dfenton
David Fenton Associates                http://www.bway.net/~dfassoc

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