And because it makes no sense to you it is therefore wrong?- or proponents
thereof are "borderline incompetent?

K in OZ

Keith Helgesen.
Director of Music, Canberra City Band.
Ph: (02) 62910787. Band Mob. 0439-620587
Private Mob 0417-042171

-----Original Message-----
From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of
David W. Fenton
Sent: Thursday, 30 June 2005 3:49 AM
To: [email protected]
Subject: Re: [Finale] half rests in 6/4?

On 29 Jun 2005 at 13:20, Aaron Sherber wrote:

> At 12:58 PM 06/29/2005, David W. Fenton wrote:
>  >Why would anyone use a 6 for 3 beats?
> 
> Because if you have a section in quarter notes that's going back and
> forth between 4, 5, and 6 beats to the bar (for example), intermixing
> 4/4, 5/4, and then 3/2 can look confusing to the player. 6/4 makes it
> clear that the beat is still the quarter note.

OK, fine, but that's not 3 beats per measure. I was responding to 
Darcy's remarks that he wasn't familiar with 6/4 used as anything but 
3 beats per measure.

> I'm looking at a Hindemith score that uses 6/4 in exactly this way.
> 
> I'm not saying I'd necessarily make the same choice, but I do 
> understand the rationale.

If it's not one recurrent metrical structure throughout, it's not 
really in 3/2. That is, in a context where you're switching 
subdivision and accent patterns, it's fairly arbitrary which one you 
choose.

But I was speaking to those sitautions where there *is* a pretty 
clear underlying 3 to the meter, but where 6/4 is used for that -- 
that's a practice that makes little sense to me at all.

-- 
David W. Fenton                        http://www.bway.net/~dfenton
David Fenton Associates                http://www.bway.net/~dfassoc

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