On 21 Jan 2006 at 6:21, dhbailey wrote: > If you're just placing the two meters beside each other at the start > of the work, how will anybody know when a measure is supposed to get > the 3/4 feeling instead of hemiolas in 6/8?
>From my point of view this is not a very smart question. Hundreds of years worth of music have been written without changing meters (and even without indicating the oscillation between two meters) where it is CRYSTAL-CLEAR which meter to use in which measures. > With both meters allowing 6 8th notes (or 3 quarter notes) it may not > be immediately obvious in measures other than ones full of 8th notes > where you can show the meter with the beaming. Uh, absent 8th notes, where's the problem? A half and quarter, or 3 quarters or two dotted quarters are pretty clear, don't you think? Of course, if you actually mean to have an accent or syncopation, then you'd notate it the opposite of the expected. For instance, if you had a note of 4 8ths duration followed by 2 8ths, but you wanted it in 6/8, you'd notate it as dotted quarter tied to 3 8ths, which makes clear that it's a measure in 6/8. This is not by any means anything I'd consider the slightest bit difficult or ambiguous. I'm surprised anyone would even ask the question, as the solutions are so simple and obvious, as well as so incredibly widespread in so many historical repertories. -- David W. Fenton http://dfenton.com David Fenton Associates http://dfenton.com/DFA/ _______________________________________________ Finale mailing list Finale@shsu.edu http://lists.shsu.edu/mailman/listinfo/finale
