At 7:26 PM -0500 11/16/06, David W. Fenton wrote:
It's not as simple as you make it out to be, seems to me.
That's entirely possible! I can make one definite statement: in the case of an arrangement of a copyrighted musical work, unless a written agreement to the contrary exists, that arrangement is assumed BY DEFAULT to be a derivative work and therefore to be the property, with a new copyright, of the copyright owner of the original work.
As I write that and look at it carefully, I guess it doesn't matter whether it is an arrangement "for hire" or an arrangement made without the permission of the copyright owner, or for that matter WITH the permission of the copyright owner. The arranger does not own copyright in the arrangement unless it is specified in writing.
You say that in other situations the opposite applies. You may very well be right. That's the problem with arguing from analogy.
John -- John & Susie Howell Virginia Tech Department of Music Blacksburg, Virginia, U.S.A 24061-0240 Vox (540) 231-8411 Fax (540) 231-5034 (mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]) http://www.music.vt.edu/faculty/howell/howell.html _______________________________________________ Finale mailing list [email protected] http://lists.shsu.edu/mailman/listinfo/finale
