On Jan 11, 2007, at 12:36 PM, Johannes Gebauer wrote:
the main reason imo is that the change from Baroque to Viennese Classical was more radical than any other up to that time.
Now just a pea-pickin' minute here! Surely you're not claiming this change was greater than that from Renaissance to Baroque (1600) or Ars Subtilior to Burgundian (1450) or Ars Antiqua to Ars Nova (1300)--are you??
If so, please allow me quietly to demur. Andrew Stiller Kallisti Music Press http://home.netcom.com/~kallisti/ _______________________________________________ Finale mailing list [email protected] http://lists.shsu.edu/mailman/listinfo/finale
