At 8:07 AM -0500 1/17/07, David W. Fenton wrote:
On 17 Jan 2007 at 8:33, Johannes Gebauer wrote:
> First: No, those parts which are there could not have been used by two
singers, unless they would have sung everything, including arias.
What is the term? Reduction ad absurdam? Where is it written in
scripture that any given part has to include meticulous instructions
about everything, when they were performing their music in their
style and doing it every week under the supervision of the composer!
That's like saying a jazz player can't swing unless the swing is
notated and there's a footnote explaining how to swing! How long
would it have taken Bach, at the last rehearsal, to say, "OK, Fritz,
you take that number as a solo if you're over your cold on Sunday,
but otherwise Hans takes it, and make sure you all sing on the
chorale"?
> There is simply no, repeat no, indications of where the ripieno sings
and where the solos sing. There are exceptions where there are ripieno
parts, but even for those there are numerous arguments, why they could
only have been used by one singer.
Any part can be used by more than one singer or player. I don't
understand how there can possibly be ANY evidence to the contrary,
because it's a plain physical fact!!
John
--
John & Susie Howell
Virginia Tech Department of Music
Blacksburg, Virginia, U.S.A 24061-0240
Vox (540) 231-8411 Fax (540) 231-5034
(mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED])
http://www.music.vt.edu/faculty/howell/howell.html
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