On 22 Mar 2007 at 12:04, Aaron Sherber wrote:

> At 11:45 AM 3/22/2007, David W. Fenton wrote:
>  >On 22 Mar 2007 at 11:19, A-NO-NE Music wrote:
>  >
>  >> Johannes Gebauer / 2007/03/22 / 11:05 AM wrote:
>  >>
>  >> >You come from a different music culture. Where I play people
>  never >> >agree on what 4 bars after C means. Do you count C as 1, or
>  0? >> >> Interesting.  4 bars after [C] means we are starting at the
>  5th bar >> from [C].  I have never experienced any confusion during
>  my rehearsals >> so this is new to me. > >See, I would have
>  immediately played the previous measure.
> 
> I do understand the potential for confusion, but really it's just
> logic. 

Most people think the year 2000 was the first year of the 21st 
century (rather than the last of the 20th). It's not logical, but 
that's what everyone believes.

> Where would you start if I said 1 bar after C? You wouldn't
> start at C, I assume -- you'd start the next bar (that is, the second
> bar of C). So 4 bars after C therefore has to be 3 bars later than
> that.

It doesn't matter how logical it is. When I hear it I'm equally 
likely to choose the 4th or 5th bar.

Since it's quite easy to say "5th bar after C" I don't see why you'd 
ever say "4 bars after C."

In any event, this is why I actually prefer running measure numbers 
instead of rehearsal letters, because then you can just say "start at 
measure 23" and there's no possible way it can be misinterpreted.

I know that's not customary in orchestral music, though, or in stage 
works.

-- 
David W. Fenton                    http://dfenton.com
David Fenton Associates       http://dfenton.com/DFA/

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