On 22 Mar 2007 at 14:35, Andrew Stiller wrote:

> The point of measure numbers it to allow conductors and scholars to
> unambiguously refer to a particular measure without fear of being
> misunderstood. That being the case, measures in first and second
> endings *must* be numbered differently, one way or another.

Do you consider "1st ending measure 16" and "2nd ending measure 16" 
to be "one way or another" that they are numberd differently? If not, 
I'd like to know why. If so, then you don't have a beef with 
Johannes.

-- 
David W. Fenton                    http://dfenton.com
David Fenton Associates       http://dfenton.com/DFA/

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