On 23.03.2007 Darcy James Argue wrote:
He didn't say anything about "after [C]." But you replied as if he had.
No I didn't. Here is what I said:
"You come from a different music culture. Where I play people never
agree on what 4 bars after C means. Do you count C as 1, or 0?"
I know he didn't say "after", but as you say, there isn't any confusion
with "before", whereas there is with "after". He made the point that
letters are always clear, to which I objected. They certainly aren't in
this country.
You then said, that I disagreed about "before" indications being
unambiguous, which I definitely did not. That was my point, and either
you didn't read carefully, or you are deliberately misinterpreting me.
Sorry Darcy, I know this is splitting hairs, but you are misinterpreting
me, and there is no reason for that in anything I wrote.
Johannes
--
http://www.musikmanufaktur.com
http://www.camerata-berolinensis.de
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