David,
Good question, and one that I've given somef thought to, without
coming to any satisfactory conclusions other than the one suggested
in my first post. But there it is, in quite a few cases, by the way.
If your German isn't too rusty, you might want to take a look at an
article I wrote a few years ago asking just such questions — with
examples of this notational oddity—: "Das Fremde im Vertrauten:
Gedanken über Telemanns Frankfurter Kantatenaufführungen, in:
Freiheit oder Gesetz? Aufführungspraktische Erkenntnisse aus
Telemannns Handschriften, zeitgenössischen Abschriften,
musiktheoretischen Publikationen und ihre Anwendung. (= Magdeburger
Telemann-Konferenzberichte, Band XIII (2007), S. 266ff) — in the
course of which discussion, by the way, Rifkin's ideas concerning the
performing forces for cantatas are shown to be right on the mark, at
least for Frankfurt.
Eric
On 21.12.2008, at 22:11, David W. Fenton wrote:
On 21 Dec 2008 at 11:39, Eric Fiedler wrote:
I think what Telemann " and/or his copiest " is doing here in TVWV
1:644 is to alert the viola player to the fact that he is playing the
same line as the bass, albeit an octave higher. This happens a lot in
Telemann manuscripts, with even the violins often being written in
bass clef to show the same thing, a phenomenon which some researchers
call "bassett notation".
I've never heard of that one, but wonder why it would require
anything unusual for the violas, since doubling the bass an octave
higher is something the violas do in a huge swath of repertory. Why
would special notation be required to indicate something that is
common practice?
--
David W. Fenton http://dfenton.com
David Fenton Associates http://dfenton.com/DFA/
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