Apologies if you get this twice...
-----Original Message-----
From: Guy Smith <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
Sent: Dec 28, 2004 8:52 PM
To: [email protected]
Subject: RE: Interesting twist from liberal columnist (starts about � way
through).
In the article below the following passage:
" (The percentage of suicides with guns, he said, offers a
reasonable proxy for the prevalence of gun ownership.) "
I have not heard any debate on the validity of this assumption. Anyone
in this forum have an opinion? My instinct is that there are too many
other variables linked to suicides for this to be viable aside from
extremely rough approximations.
******************************************************
Reasonable enough for a Usenet flamewar, pub-debate, idle curiosity or small
wagers. If you're writing an academic paper, it's not good enough alone (in my
opinion). You could inflate gun ownership in the South East of England to
100%, people would still be throwing themselves over the white cliffs of Dover.
---Clay
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