On another firearms discussion list, the following "legal theories" were propounded.  I have heard similar arguments before.  Is there any substance to the idea that one who bans guns on one's own property gives rise to liability/responsibility for the welfare of third parties entering one's property who are disarmed due to your ban?  I can't seem to dredge up a viable legal theory that fits that scenario.

***GRJ***


The thing it does is to put the employer in the position of, by contract,
denying its employees any means to protect themselves between work and home,
should that ever be necessary.

By doing so the employer has contracted 'themselves' into the role of
guaranteeing a persons safety from home to work, throughout the workday
(whether on company property or not), and back home. This would include any
persons under that employees immediate care, taking children to school, as
well.

Perhaps you could start by asking her to cite and source the incidents
she referred to wherein a perp broke into a car, took the gun within
and went on to kill workers. As far as I can recall over the past few years,
the only cars broken into and the guns removed belonged to the FBI and other
LE cars.

Te other question is one of Company liability in prohibiting derfensive
firearms while not taking steps or due diligence to provide a Weapon Free
environment. Once they've disarmed their employees, they are responsible
for anything that happens if they could have, should have and would have
taken safety steps to prevent criminal violence.

In prohibiting defensive arms, her company has bought a huge liability
burden. Ask JC Penney's Risk Managers...
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