John Lott has graciously conducted a quick review of the recent Miller, 
Hemenway & Azael study supposedly linking state gun ownership rates with 
homicide rates. 
 
The NY Times reported the results of the study leading with the sentence: 
"States with the greatest number of guns in the home also have the highest 
rates of homicide, a new study finds."

http://www.nytimes.com/2007/01/23/health/23cons.html?_r=1&adxnnl=1&oref=slogin&adxnnlx=1169748913-4dJfi5Tmm32lu3BMdz/g2A
 
I hope others will also run the analyses themselves and report the results of 
replication to the rest of the academic community and also the news media.  
Please see Lott's blog for further results.
 
Rich
 
 
 
http://www.johnrlott.com/
 
1/24/2007
Problems with the latest Miller, Hemenway, Azrael study on guns 

The New York Times reports yesterday that a new study from Miller, Hemenway, 
and Azrael claims: "States with the greatest number of guns in the home also 
have the highest rates of homicide, a new study finds. . . . " Well, I have 
just spent a short time looking at the study, but there are some of things that 
are pretty obvious: 1) They excluded the District of Columbia without any 
explanation, 2) they use other crime rates to explain the homicide rate (by the 
way, they don’t use anything like an arrest or conviction rate, nothing to do 
with law enforcement), 3) they use purely cross-sectional data that never 
allows one to properly control for what may cause differences in crime rates, 
and 4) data from different years is used without any explanation (for the sake 
of argument I will use what they did, but it is weird to have the unemployment 
rate from 2000 to explain the homicide rate from 2001 to 2003, etc.). The data 
for a panel test on this is readily available from the sources used in their 
paper, though I have only collected the data to redo the estimates for 2001 
that they use (why is it that these papers where one can put together the data 
in an afternoon get any serious attention). Why they only looked at the CDC 
data for 2001 when it is available for many other years is a bit of a puzzle. 
Since Miller and Hemenway have refused in the past to let me look at their 
data, I didn't bother this time and simply put the data together myself.
 
The bottom line is that their results comes from two factors: the exclusion of 
DC and the use of other crime rates to explain the murder rate. Changing these 
two factors causes their result to go from positive and significant to negative 
and significant. I also decided to run these regressions on the robbery rate 
and doing so produced a statistically significant negative effect whether or 
not DC was excluded. Using arrest rate data, not shown, also caused the results 
to be more significantly negative. If I had the necessary panel data handy, my 
strong presumption is that would also reverse with their result whether or not 
DC was included.
It is problematic to include the other crime rates in these regressions, 
particularly since they must believe that guns cause robbery as well as 
homicide. The results below indicate that more guns mean fewer robberies (again 
this is using their flawed set up, though I believe that this would continue to 
be observed with panel data).
 
In any case, noting that this is purely cross-sectional data and not very 
useful, here is an attempt to redo their estimates looking at the homicide rate 
from 2001 to 2003 on the gun ownership rate from the CDC and the other 
variables that they use (I wasn't able to find their gini coefficient, but that 
is the only variable that they used that wasn't included):
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