As I read this (and perhaps simplifying it a bit overly), the Supreme
Court ruled only that a federal law aimed at "domestic violence"
offenders applies to violent offenses against state laws that do not
necessarily contain the words "domestic violence," as long as they
were against a "domestic" victim.
It appears to me that there has yet been no ruling, plus or minus, on
whether a fundamental constitutional right can be denied in response
to a misdemeanor crime -- presumably because Hayes did not raise this
argument. Is this accurate? Have others made this argument
previously, pre- or post-Heller? If pre, would Heller destroy any of
the assumptions that resulted in that earlier decision?
--
Escape the Rat Race for Peace, Quiet, and Miles of Desert Beauty
Take a Sanity Break at The Bunkhouse at Liberty Haven Ranch
http://libertyhavenranch.com
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