Hi All,
I recently wrote a post on my blog
<http://www.brightworks.com/flex_ability/?p=17> about an error I was
encountering. A kind commenter explained that my problem was caused by
the fact that I had two different webApps running that were both
configured - in their services-config.xml files - so that their RTMP
channels used the same port.
I want to revise my post to explain this, but want to make sure that I
understand how things work first.
So I'd welcome any feedback on the following explanations & questions:
1. Obviously it is bad to have two different webApps use the same RTMP
port. I assume that webApps can't share the same port because, well, how
would they know which webApp a particular message is being sent to? I
suppose that this could be resolved by giving different destination
names to the different webApp's RTMP destinations, but I can imagine how
this approach could create problems. Anyway, I'm wondering if anyone
here can explain the crux of the problem more clearly or succinctly...
2. I assume that configuring a channel with a specific port number (e.g.
uri="rtmp://{server.name}:2038") does two things:
a. It tells the FDS server-side code to listen to that port for that
channel.
b. It tells clients to connect to that port if they're using that
channel. I assume that there's some mechanism whereby clients say, "hey
webApp, what port do I use for this RTMP channel?"
Am I understanding correctly here?
3. I'm guessing that sharing ports between webApps isn't a problem for
HTTP and AMF channels. The reason I think this is that they are
configured in channel definitions with URIs like this:
uri="http://{server.name}:{server.port}/{context.root}/messagebroker/amfpolling
... as opposed to specifying a specific port, as we do in RTMP channel
defs.
Do I understand this correctly?
4. I'm guessing that the reason why this isn't a problem is that they
don't use a sustained connection, as RTMP channels do. Is this correct?
Thanks in advance for any input! :-)
Douglas McCarroll
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