David Gerard wrote: > 2009/4/22 Milos Rancic >> And if you want to force any kind of neutrality there, you would get >> the same kind of scientific production which existed in East European >> countries during 50s and 60s: A (very good) book about ancient Greek >> literature starts with 20-30 pages of Preface in which author explains >> relations between ancient Greek literature and Marxism. But, there >> were a lot of not so good books which had a lot of grotesque >> connections between Marxism and its content not just inside of their >> prefaces. >> > I'm not clear on the connection between neutrality and Marxism ... > could you explain the logical steps between the two clauses of your > first sentence? > > Even if Marx's results are highly debatable, there can be little doubt that all his long hours in the British Museum library were spent in good faith trying to give economics a scientific point of view. Forced neutrality is rarely neutral, and the "scientific production" of some of these East European writers has more to do with sycophancy than science. That kind of writing is not unique to a Marxist context.
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