On Monday 25 April 2005 12:10, Florian Klaempfl wrote: Just a small reprise on this matter:
> It's simply a thing to make life easier especially for beginners. Easy to shoot theirselves in the foot? ;-) There's already a language well known for this type of "easyness". > I > don't know a real reason why the arrays shouldn't be considered equal Let me put in this way: Perhaps because your compiler is supposed to be a Pascal-compiler and Pascal considers type as identical when they are identical by name (which basically means: they derive from the same type definition) and not by structure (which can be just pure coincidence)? I don't mean to be rude, but IMO you've did the equivalent of taking a sawed-off shotgun and blowing a big hole into Pascal's intended type system (which already isn't perfect either) - and your argument why you did it is totally bogus, because the only time where this matters is when someone uses anonymous types and their use should be strongly discouraged anyway. Vinzent. _______________________________________________ fpc-devel maillist - [email protected] http://lists.freepascal.org/mailman/listinfo/fpc-devel
