On Sun, 4 Nov 2007 18:00:27 -0500
Brian Finniff <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:

> My question is, if you are running a website for 2 different people on the 
> Internet and they both wanted to acquire a domain but you only have one IP 
> address, would it be possible to forward each domain to the same IP address 
> and somehow each one becomes distinct? If so, how is this possible? Can you 
> explain to me how it can be done.
> Oh and for reference, I am not talking about web redirects.

Hi Brian,
to be more generic in the answer, you can map as many FQDN (fully qualified 
domain name) as you want to a single IP via DNS (you can even enable wildcard 
records in certain DNS server software that will match *.yourdomain.com to a 
default IP). 

That tells {client_software} that {this_FQDN} is {this_IP}. 
{client_software}will use that information in whatever form is suitable to 
{client_software} - in most cases it will contact {server_sofware} running in a 
server (or group of servers) running as {this_IP}. It is up to 
{server_software} to determine how the request from {client_software} is 

For a variety of {server_software}, there is support for named based virtual 
hosts, where the server will behave differently depending on what FQDN the 
client is attempting to contact : web servers, FTP servers, etc. Others don't, 
because it doesn't make sense, or because the protocol used doesn't support 
such thing (HTTPS, for example).

If you want a more specific answer, you need to defined what you want to do. 
Odds are, you are talking about websites - the other replies to your mail 
should have answered that point.

{Beto|Norberto|Numard} Meijome

Q. How do you make God laugh?
A. Tell him your plans.

I speak for myself, not my employer. Contents may be hot. Slippery when wet. 
Reading disclaimers makes you go blind. Writing them is worse. You have been 
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