David, barry, etc.

I have listened to a plethora of pod casts ... all a blur ... but the consensus 
on re infection seems to be that it will be impossible, at least for a time 
after infection is resolved.  However, everybody admits, on close questioning, 
that this believe is based on an analogy with other similar viruses and NOT on 
any data with respect to COVID 19.  By the way, SOME pets have tested positive, 
although there is no evidence of transmission via pets.  Still, I would say 
social isolation would include not letting the neighbor's dog lick your hand, 
even IF it is on the end of a 6' leash.  

Nick 

Nicholas Thompson
Emeritus Professor of Ethology and Psychology
Clark University
[email protected]
https://wordpress.clarku.edu/nthompson/
 


-----Original Message-----
From: Friam <[email protected]> On Behalf Of Steven A Smith
Sent: Wednesday, April 1, 2020 12:49 PM
To: [email protected]
Subject: Re: [FRIAM] covid question


> Given that 23-30 percent (US estimated numbers) up to 50 percent (Iceland 
> reported numbers) of Covid positives are asymptomatic:

I believe that "asymptomatic" is a blurry concept in this case.   There is 
"presymptomatic" and "subsymptomatic" and "cryptosymptomatic" even 
"cosymptomatic".   

Pre:  Everyone, by definition, is presymptomatic when they are first 
exposed/infected.   I get the impression that the delay in significant symptoms 
showing is somewhat variable (2-10 days?)

Sub:  Everyone has a different level of immune health and symptom 
susceptibility.  I might notice a mild fever immediately while you might not.  
It seems that while the scope of symptoms has expanded with 
experience/reporting (nausea, blunted taste/smell, etc.), it appears that not 
every individual experiences every symptom, and some are more sensitive to 
certain symptoms than others.   I'm not prone to fevers, so I *might* be very 
quick to notice my fever, for example.  My partner has somewhat chronic sinus 
disturbances, so she might have symptoms masked or false-positived.

Crypto:  My example above might be crypto or co-symptomatic.   An asthmatic or 
COPD or ??? might always be short of breath, and stronger than usual symptoms 
might be attributed to anxiety.

Co: I don't believe there is any reason one cannot contract multiple viri at 
the same time...  the general immune system does seem to be relevant...  while 
having an influenza virus might give some Covid-like symptoms *and* if COVID is 
contracted, the symptoms might add, the general immune response to one virus 
may well help to slow the other one from getting a foothold.  I don't know of 
the research in this area...
there must be plenty.   Also, the Kinsa IOT thermometer "health weather map" is 
a good example of co-symptoms.


>
> 1) if you have the disease, but do not show symptoms, do you still develop an 
> immunity after some period of time?
This is a good/important question.   My intuition says that we *must*. For 
example, I have had no more than 1 or 2 influenza-like symptom bouts in the 
last 5 years while people around me have had 1 or 2 each winter.
  I am not normally a social-distancer (except for hermit-like tendencies) 
>
> 2) If a pregnant woman recovers from the disease, is her immunity passed 
> along to the fetus?
I am pretty sure the placental barrier, for better or worse, inhibits that 
(evolution/selection suggests it is for the better in a larger
sense) but I also believe that breast-feeding is one of the mechanisms for 
jump-starting the immune system...   I have 2 daughters with one child each and 
both are sensitive/aware of these things... I suppose I could ask them what 
they know/believe..
> 3) Will a woman who recovers and has immunity, pass that immunity along to 
> any future conceptions?
While there is a lot of new epigenetics reported in the last 10 years, I think 
this one falls in the category of 2 above... the prime source of "inherited" 
immunity/resistance might be breast-feeding.  Viva La Leche!
> 4) If asymptomatic cases do develop immunity, "herd immunity" will be 
> attained much faster than projected. 
I think the *sub*symptomatic are definitely fitting in this category. It seems 
possible (likely?) that sub-symptomatic is positively correlated with higher 
virus-specific immune-system response, but could also represent general 
immunology, possibly suppressing/obviating virus-specific responses?
> But what is the trade-off between the number of people who might be infected 
> by an asymptomatic — and what is the window of time when the person is an 
> infectious agent — and the contribution to herd immunity? Not expressing this 
> last question very eloquently, but hope point is clear.

I think this is what someone will be able to determine forensically
post-apocalypse (sub-apocalypse?) from the myriad experiments underway
in each country/culture... 

BTW - I don't find the EU's multiple-approaches nearly as disturbing as
some seem to.  SE and NL are responding "similarly" to one another, in
spite of moderately different cultures.  NO and DE seem to be somewhat
different from SE and NL,  and FI is "yet another" approach as a
"Nordic" country.     

This begs the issue somewhat of the tension between "globalization" and
"localization?".  I don't think it can be an either/or.   I suspect
Brexiteers and anti-EU and anti-Globalists are reveling in trying to
show how so much free mixing (open-borders, reciprocal relations, etc.)
can be a problem.    But also it shows how quickly
Spain/Portugal/Italy/France/Germany/etc can close or at least closely
regulate their borders IN SPITE of having been EU's up for 20 years?

- SteveS




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============================================================
FRIAM Applied Complexity Group listserv
Meets Fridays 9a-11:30 at cafe at St. John's College
to unsubscribe http://redfish.com/mailman/listinfo/friam_redfish.com
archives back to 2003: http://friam.471366.n2.nabble.com/
FRIAM-COMIC http://friam-comic.blogspot.com/ by Dr. Strangelove

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